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Prior to going abroad for 2 months (November /December) my top bar had a very high mite count that i had been unable to reduce with AOV. So I used Apistan (for the first time) for those 8 weeks. In hindsight this period would have been early honeyflow. What does this mean as far as honey is concerned?? 

The hive has good stores and I’d planned to leave any honey for the bees and possibly harvest surplus next spring.

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1 minute ago, Timw said:

Prior to going abroad for 2 months (November /December) my top bar had a very high mite count that i had been unable to reduce with AOV. So I used Apistan (for the first time) for those 8 weeks. In hindsight this period would have been early honeyflow. What does this mean as far as honey is concerned?? 

The hive has good stores and I’d planned to leave any honey for the bees and possibly harvest surplus next spring.

That’s a good question .

You would not be the only one who has strips in at the beginning of the flow.

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22 hours ago, M4tt said:

That’s a good question .

You would not be the only one who has strips in at the beginning of the flow.

Well @M4tt maybe I am the only one. ...I understand Apistan is lipophilic and is taken up by wax but to what extent? And does it get into honey. An article by Ceracel (notwithstanding the obvious potential for bias) explains the mechanisms of Apistan and in a circumstance such as I describe above the only way Apistan would get into the honey is by incomplete filtration (of wax particles). This inherently makes sense. While I’m not advocating harvesting the honey for consumption if there was a big excess I’d contemplate trying a bar myself. ????

 

https://www.ceracell.co.nz/articles/the-truth-about-apistan/

 

Edited by Timw
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